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Jack Jordan's avatar

Anyone who asks a question such as "In a perfect world, shouldn’t we avoid drawing districts with race in mind?" and anyone who characterizes such a question as "fair" should consider how Frederick Douglass might answer or address such a question or characterization if he were here to do so.

A discussion of the propriety (or impropriety) of celebrating Juneteenth brought to my attention a speech by Douglass denouncing emancipation as "a stupendous fraud" after he had visited South Carolina and Georgia. See https://www.historyisaweapon.com/defcon1/douglassfraud.html.

Douglass made clear that he would be extremely disappointed to discover that so many people advocate celebrating mere emancipation. He was even more clear and emphatic about how disappointed he would be to learn that even well-intentioned people even today presume or pretend that discussion should revolve around the existence of an imaginary "perfect world."

Jack Jordan's avatar

Certainly, it's fair to take seriously such a question about the operation of the rule of law in the U.S. But--depending on who asked that question and why--I'm not at all sure I'd say that question was fair.

Is it ever fair to presume any people ever did or ever could live in an ideal or perfect world? Such a conception is clearly contrary to the very concept of government, in general, and of our written Constitution, in particular. As James Madison highlighted in Federalist No. 51, a crucial self-evident truth about "government" is that it is "the greatest of all reflections on human nature." "If men were angels, no government would be necessary. If angels were to govern men, neither external nor internal controls on government would be necessary. In framing a government which is to be administered by men over men, the great difficulty lies in this: you must first enable the government to control the governed; and in the next place oblige it to control itself."

Madison highlighted in Federalist No. 10 intimately related problems of human nature (which were among the primary reasons for having a written Constitution that declared the paramount law of the land):

"The latent causes of faction are [patently] sown in the nature of man; and we see them everywhere brought into different degrees of activity, according to the different circumstances of civil society. A zeal for different opinions concerning religion, concerning government, and many other points, as well of speculation as of practice; an attachment to different leaders ambitiously contending for pre-eminence and power; or to persons of other descriptions whose fortunes have been interesting to the human passions, have, in turn, divided mankind into parties, inflamed them with mutual animosity, and rendered them much more disposed to vex and oppress each other than to co-operate for their common good. So strong is this propensity of mankind to fall into mutual animosities, that where no substantial occasion presents itself, the most frivolous and fanciful distinctions have been sufficient to kindle their unfriendly passions and excite their most violent conflicts."

Isn't it true that the whole reason for the Voting Rights Act was to recognize and try to remedy "frivolous and fanciful distinctions" (as Madison put it) regarding a particular way in which Americans never did live in a perfect world? Isn't it true that one primary reason the VRA outlawed discrimination in voting "on account of race or color" was that discrimination by some Americans against other Americans on account of race or color was rampant in flagrant (and knowing) violation of clear and controlling provisions of our Constitution? The VRA didn't require proof of animus based on race or color, but it certainly recognized the existence of such animus. Our Constitution (even in 1788) and huge portions of American history and tradition clearly reflected the existence of animus based on race or color.

The Fifteenth Amendment also had long since specifically emphasized that no government had any power to deny or abridge the right "to vote . . . on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude." That prohibition necessarily was an express acknowledgement of the extreme prevalence of the problem.

The Fourteenth Amendment also had long since emphasized that "No State" had any power whatsoever to "make or enforce any law" that would "abridge [any] privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States" or "deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law" or "deny to any person" fully "equal protection of the laws." Those prohibitions necessarily were an express acknowledgement of the extreme prevalence of those problems.

Despite those amendments to the paramount part of the supreme law of the land, when the VRA was written and enacted (and even to this day), purported public servants in state or national government violate their oaths to support our Constitution by violating some or all the foregoing. So is it fair to phrase the question to imply that such discrimination started with or exists primarily because of the VRA?

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